I'm a subcontractor, who recently finished trim work on a new construction project, that's owner occupied. This gets weird. The homeowner is supposed to have a general contractor as required by their bank for the construction loan they took out. I was hired who I thought was the GC, only to find out he's not the GC. There's no GC on the job. Now the guy who hired me is not paying and told me to speak to the homeowner about my invoices. The homeowner says the guy posing as the GC is responsible for paying me, but he's not a licensed GC. I need to file a lien, and in this case it should be able to go against the homeowner and their property since there is no acting GC? Correct? Also since I'm a specialty/subcontractor is there flexibility with sending a preliminary notice? Can and should I still send that?