This is an unusual situation where I’ve done significant work on a property (my wife’s) under the understanding that it was our house even tho my name isn’t on it. Now she is claiming I have no right to it at all and is also claiming all mortgage paid prior to our marriage (almost 30k) be reimbursed upon the sale of the house before splitting the remainder after the mortgage is paid. We were together five years before she purchased the house in which she lived at my apartment rent free while finishing a degree which allowed her to get the lucrative job she now holds. I want to send an invoice for the work I’ve done conservatively estimated at 50-60k but didn’t invoice when originally doing the work because it was understood to be 50/50 ownership. Now that about 10 years have past since it was purchased and she no longer wants to uphold the agreement am I able to then request compensation for my work or am I out any claim to my labor because a certain amount of time has passed?