I am an excavation contractor that often works by renting my equipment out to a customer by the day with an operator. This is a common practice today, practiced more and more by similar companies in the wake of the rapidly changing costs of operating and construction materials. I have worked for a particular customer several times in the past in the exact same fashion providing a daily invoice for the equipment and I have been paid by this customer. I was asked at the end of a particular project on the customer’s residence to do some additional work, which she listed out . I executed the requested work under the customers supervision and once it was completed, I invoiced the customer for the machinery used , providing a separate invoice for each day at the exact same rates that this customer had agreed to previously and paid for previously. After chasing the customer for a week plus, she decided to text me that she wasn’t going to pay me any additional monies because she didn’t have the money. I do not have a written contract with the customer because I was simply renting her the equipment with an operator and she had several times previously acknowledged the rates and paid the invoices provided without any issues whatsoever. She requested the additional use of the equipment and acknowledged the rates and even further provided me a list of her specific tasks that she wanted done. Her property was drastically improved by my efforts and it’s value was drastically increased. She has since started the process of putting her home up for sale, creating an unjust enrichment situation for certain. Can I put a mechanics lien on her property. An auto mechanic can put a mechanics lien on a car without a contract if he or she did work on that car. The work requested was completed and my rates and invoicing practices were acknowledged and previously accepted and paid.