If a custom homeowner client wishes to pay for items within our GC contract (cost plus) by direct purchase, that does not constitute it to be a deductive change order, correct? Since the items are still in the scope of our cost plus contract but they wish to pay for them on their credit card direct from the supplier (ie. appliances and plumbing fixtures). They have financial incentive to have it be construed as a deductive change order, and I want to be sure that it would not be since it is still in the scope of our contract and purchase order was issued by us. I'm leaning toward not letting them pay the supplier directly. Thoughts?